Question 1 of 30

A previously healthy 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of chest pain. His EKG shows an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. On physical examination, he has jugular vein distention and clear lungs. You should treat him immediately with which of the following:

Intravenous fluids.





This patient's presentation is consistent with a right ventricular infarction complicating an inferior myocardial infarction (MI). Approximately one-third of patients with acute inferior wall MIs are complicated by a right ventricular infarct. The appropriate initial treatment is to “fill the tank”—intravenous fluids.